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Harr Hematology Practice Test

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  • Which of the following cells would most likely be elevated in patients with hemolytic anemia?
  • Which laboratory results are indicative of DIC?
  • Which statement is correct regarding the fibrinogen/fibrin degradation product test?
  • What is indicated by an elevated LAP score in a patient?
  • Repeated phlebotomy in patients with polycythemia vera (PV) may lead to the development of which condition?
  • Which antibiotic is most commonly associated with the development of aplastic anemia?
  • What is the calculation method for determining the LAP score from a given leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain?
  • What is the function of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)?
  • What condition demonstrates prolonged APTT with no correction after mixing studies?
  • What is a common consequence of thrombocytopenia?
  • Which factor may interfere with the activated protein C resistance (APCR) screening test?
  • What laboratory finding is characteristic for hemolytic anemias?
  • In which condition would an autohemolysis test yield a positive result?
  • Which erythrocyte inclusion is detectable with supravital stain but not on a Wright's-stained blood smear?
  • Which cells are pathognomonic for Hodgkin's disease?
  • Which laboratory result would you expect in a patient with afibrinogenemia?
  • Which of the following Hgb configurations is characteristic of Hgb H?
  • What additional feature is considered in the WHO classification of myelo- and lymphoproliferative disorders?
  • Which of the following prevents platelet aggregation?
  • Which condition is often related to the development of thrombocytopenia?
  • What effect does refrigeration have on PT samples longer than 24 hours?
  • Which of the following results is characteristic of lupus anticoagulant in mixing studies?
  • What causes erythrocytosis seen in relative polycythemia?
  • Which of the following features is NOT typically associated with Hgb C disease?
  • The role of vitamin K is primarily related to the synthesis of which factors?
  • What is the white blood cell (WBC) count when 36 cells are counted using a 1:10 dilution?
  • Which factor deficiency would most likely result in prolonged APTT and normal PT?
  • Which of the following is associated with antithrombin deficiency?
  • After making a 1:200 dilution and counting 336 red cells in 0.2 mm², what is the RBC count?
  • Which of the following tests is primarily abnormal in patients with von Willebrand disease?
  • Which of the following is a characteristic of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)?
  • If a 7.0-mL EDTA tube contains only 2.0 mL of blood, which test will likely be erroneous?
  • Which anticoagulant drug can be safely used in patients with HIT?
  • What is a common finding in the peripheral blood of patients with essential thrombocythemia?
  • Which leukemia is included in the 2008 WHO classification of myeloproliferative neoplasms?
  • What does the term leukoerythroblastosis describe in leukemia?
  • The anemia seen in sickle cell disease is usually:
  • Which of the following drugs is a thrombolytic agent?
  • What is the corrected reticulocyte count for a patient with a reticulocyte count of 7% and an Hct of 20%?
  • Which condition is characterized by a low LAP score compared to a high LAP score in leukemoid reactions?
  • What is the preferred anticoagulant for routine coagulation studies?
  • Which of the following is an appropriate screening test for the diagnosis of lupus anticoagulant?
  • In primary fibrinolysis, the fibrinolytic activity results in response to:
  • What condition is characterized by a low concentration of monoclonal protein and no osteolytic lesions?
  • In the context of blood disorders, what does "pancytopenia" refer to?
  • Which of the following is not associated with hereditary spherocytosis?
  • In which condition does LAP show the least activity?
  • What tool is used to count white blood cells manually?
  • What is a notable feature in the blood of a patient with chronic myelogenous leukemia?
  • Which antibody type is used in the D-dimer assay?
  • In a vitamin K-deficient patient, which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal?
  • Which statement is correct regarding sample storage for the prothrombin time test?
  • Which of the following is NOT associated with the diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
  • Ecarin clotting time is monitoring which type of therapy?
  • In multiple myeloma, what is often replaced by the production of excessive immunoglobulins?
  • In von Willebrand's disease, which factor also becomes decreased?
  • Which type of leukemia primarily affects granulocytic precursors and is sensitive to Sudan Black B staining?
  • Which of the following disorders is associated with ineffective erythropoiesis?
  • Which reactions are characteristically positive in ALL but negative in AML?
  • A patient presents with an Hct of 30%, hemoglobin of 8 g/dL, and an RBC count of 4.0 × 10^12/L. What is the morphological classification of this anemia?
  • In which condition are "bite cells" commonly observed?
  • What is the consequence of having a lupus anticoagulant related to phospholipid-dependent tests?
  • What would be the likely finding in a peripheral blood smear of a patient with megaloblastic anemia?
  • What is the shape of macrocytes typically seen in megaloblastic processes?
  • What is the consequence of the APTT test in the presence of lupus anticoagulant?
  • Which disorder is commonly associated with neurological findings?
  • What does an increase in INR indicate in a patient on warfarin therapy?
  • Which factor initiates in vivo coagulation by activating factor VII?
  • Which of the following is associated with multiple factor deficiencies?
  • Which test is primarily used to monitor patients on warfarin therapy?
  • Which results are associated with hemophilia A?
  • Which platelet aggregating agent demonstrates a monophasic aggregation curve in optimal concentration?
  • Spherocytes differ from normal red cells in all of the following except:
  • Hypersplenism is characterized by:
  • Which procedure can be modified to measure fibrinogen levels?
  • What effect does insufficient centrifugation have on hematocrit (Hct) value?
  • In which of the following conditions is factor V deficiency primarily suspected?
  • Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) results from antibodies against which structure?
  • Which of the following indirect tests is insensitive to LMWH effects?
  • What is the primary test used to monitor low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) therapy?
  • Reticulocyte production is primarily assessed to evaluate what?
  • What is the effect of therapeutic phlebotomy on iron levels in polycythemia vera patients?
  • Which anticoagulant's effects are reflected in the activated clotting time test (ACT)?
  • Which red cell indices are characteristic of megaloblastic anemias?
  • Storage pool deficiencies in platelets are primarily due to defects in what?
  • A decreased osmotic fragility test is typically associated with which condition?
  • What is commonly observed in bone marrow slides of patients diagnosed with acute myeloid leukemia?
  • Which result on an automated differential suggests that a peripheral smear should be manually reviewed?
  • Which statistical term is the best index of precision when comparing two CBC parameters?
  • What does an increased central pallor in erythrocytes signify?
  • Thrombin-thrombomodulin complex is necessary for activation of:
  • Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is classified as a disorder of which type?
  • Which electrophoretic pattern is indicative of sickle cell trait?
  • Which disorder is consistent with normal platelet count, normal PT, and prolonged APTT?
  • If a patient has increased polychromasia, what additional finding may be expected on the CBC?
  • Which of the following statements is correct regarding the D-dimer test?
  • Which statement regarding protein C is correct?
  • The P2Y12 ADP receptor agonist assay is useful for monitoring which of the following drugs?
  • What role do spherocytes play in the context of hemolytic anemia?
  • In thalassemia major, what is the basic hematological defect?
  • What factor is most commonly associated with hemophilia A?
  • Fletcher factor (prekallikrein) deficiency may be associated with:
  • What impact does using a buffer at pH 6.0 have on a Wright's-stained smear?
  • What is a key characteristic finding in the peripheral smear of a patient with multiple myeloma?
  • How is Mean Cell Volume (MCV) calculated?
  • All of the following are true characteristics of megaloblastic anemia EXCEPT:
  • In leukemic lymphoblasts, which type is most characteristically associated with the CALLA antigen?
  • What mechanism leads to hemolysis in hereditary spherocytosis?
  • What does a high white blood cell count usually indicate in CML?
  • Which AML cytogenetic abnormality is associated with acute myelomonocytic leukemia with marrow eosinophilia?
  • Which laboratory test is primarily affected by factor inhibitors?
  • Which statement about Coumadin (warfarin) is accurate?
  • Prolonged APTT readings render which screening test invalid?
  • What red cell inclusion may be seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient post-splenectomy?
  • What is commonly observed in the peripheral blood smear of a patient with HIV infection?
  • Which pathophysiological mechanism does NOT typically contribute to the signs and symptoms of leukemia?
  • If a laboratory report shows a high percentage of blasts, what condition is most indicative of acute erythroid leukemia?
  • What defect characterizes Gray's syndrome?
  • Which of the following can shift the hemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve to the right?
  • What condition is indicated by a false increase in hematocrit?
  • In patients with a factor VIII inhibitor, how does the APTT behave after mixing studies?
  • Which inclusions are found in leukocytes?
  • In acute megakaryoblastic leukemia, what percentage of the blasts are of megakaryocytic lineage?
  • Which hemoglobin variant shows the slowest mobility at pH 8.6?
  • What is the role of the spleen in relation to red blood cells?
  • What happens to PT results if a tube with insufficient blood volume is submitted?
  • What defines Waldenström's macroglobulinemia as a malignancy?
  • What is the major type of leukocyte seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with aplastic anemia?
  • Which of the following is referred to as an endogenous activator of plasminogen?
  • Which chronic myeloproliferative disorder is NOT associated with the JAK2(V617F) mutation?
  • What does the anti-Xa heparin assay measure?
  • Which of the following is considered a normal form of hemoglobin?
  • In essential thrombocythemia, how do the platelets typically present?
  • In what condition is Argatroban primarily used as an anticoagulant?
  • What characteristic is typical of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
  • What term describes the change in the shape of erythrocytes on a Wright's-stained peripheral blood smear?
  • What finding is typically seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient with obstructive liver disease?
  • What is the primary purpose of phlebotomy in the treatment of polycythemia vera?
  • What is an expected outcome of administering high doses of folate to a patient with vitamin B12 anemia?
  • What condition can lead to the development of DIC?
  • What is the major consequence of the amino acid change associated with Hgb S?
  • What is a common finding in aplastic anemia?
  • What is the primary purpose of using a Miller disk in a laboratory setting?
  • What is the role of thrombin in the coagulation cascade?
  • In which age group is acute lymphoblastic leukemia most frequently diagnosed?
  • Which protein is the primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system?
  • The APTT test is sensitive to deficiencies of which clotting factor?
  • What characteristic defines vitamin K?
  • What clinical manifestation is commonly seen in hereditary spherocytosis?
  • What is the preferred site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in adults?
  • How can iron deficiency anemia be distinguished from anemia of chronic infection?
  • Autoagglutination of red cells at room temperature can cause which of the following abnormal test results?
  • What bleeding disorder is often associated with a deficiency in von Willebrand factor?
  • Diagnosis of lupus anticoagulant is confirmed by which of the following criteria?
  • Which morphological classification is characteristic of megaloblastic anemia?
  • A standard 4.5-mL blue-top tube filled with 3.0 mL of blood was submitted to the laboratory for PT and APTT tests. What is the necessary course of action by the technologist?
  • Which substance do neutrophils release that aids in combating bacterial infections?
  • Which of the following drugs inhibits ADP mediated platelet aggregation?
  • What substrate is used in a chromogenic factor assay?
  • In patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia, which cell type is likely to be present?
  • Lupus anticoagulant is most commonly associated with which condition?
  • Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis (HP) is a red cell membrane defect characterized by what type of cell morphology?
  • Which parameter may be similar in anemia of inflammation and iron deficiency anemia?
  • Which substance is contained in the primary granules of neutrophils?
  • What is the correct ratio of anticoagulant to blood for coagulation procedures?
  • Which of the following laboratory findings is characteristic of CML?
  • Which of the following is NOT a common finding in chronic myelogenous leukemia?
  • Which enzyme is primarily targeted by Argatroban?
  • Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is characterized by the presence of:
  • Which antibody is related to paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)?
  • A prolonged APTT corrected with factor VIII-deficient plasma but not with factor IX-deficient plasma indicates which factor is deficient?
  • Bernard-Soulier syndrome is associated with which of the following?
  • Which hemoglobin is predominantly found in patients with sickle cell trait?
  • Which instrument can be utilized to evaluate platelet function?
  • Given the RBC indices of MCV 88 μm3 (fL), MCH 30 pg, and MCHC 34%, how would the RBCs appear on a peripheral smear?
  • A prolonged APTT and PT are corrected when mixed with normal plasma. Which factor is most likely deficient?
  • Which reagents are used in the PT test?
  • Which of the following abnormalities is consistent with the presence of lupus anticoagulant?
  • What is the primary risk associated with hyperhomocysteinemia?
  • A patient's peripheral smear reveals numerous NRBCs, marked variation of red cell morphology, and pronounced polychromasia. What other CBC parameter may be anticipated?
  • Which drug promotes fibrinolysis?
  • What is the hallmark feature of hemolysis seen in PNH?
  • Normal PT and APTT results in a patient with poor wound healing may be associated with:
  • Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting which enzyme?
  • In a case where 75% of blasts in a peripheral smear stain positive for Sudan Black B and peroxidase, what is the most likely diagnosis?
  • What is an unusual complication associated with infectious mononucleosis?
  • In patients with chronic myelocytic leukemia, what is the effect of the Philadelphia chromosome on prognosis?
  • What is the preferred method for monitoring heparin therapy during cardiac surgery?
  • In a patient with dysfibrinogenemia, which test result would be normal?
  • What inheritance pattern is associated with hemophilia A?
  • In a peripheral blood smear, what condition reflects abnormal cell shape?
  • A clinical feature unique to severe von Willebrand's Disease is?
  • The morphological classification of anemias primarily relies on which parameter?
  • In platelet aggregation studies, which result is most likely associated with Bernard-Soulier syndrome?
  • What is the WHO designation for FAB AML M3 under the French-American-British classification?
  • Which staining method is typically used to identify myeloblasts?
  • Factor XII deficiency is associated with which risk?
  • Fibrin monomers are increased in which of the following conditions?
  • In a blood sample, a raised MCHC might indicate what condition?
  • Which of the following statements about osteoclasts is true regarding multiple myeloma?
  • Which of the following disorders has an increase in osmotic fragility?
  • Which patient groups require monitoring of LMWH therapy?
  • Which pathogen is primarily associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?
  • Which anemia has red cell morphology similar to that seen in iron deficiency anemia?
  • Elevation of which substance is a risk factor for thrombotic events?
  • Which factor deficiency is characterized by both a prolonged PT and APTT?
  • At pH 8.6, which hemoglobin migrates to the same position as Hgb A2?
  • Which of the following may be associated with thrombotic events?
  • Which of the following clotting factors are activated by thrombin that is generated by tissue pathway (TF-VIIa)?
  • What is the mechanism behind post-transfusion purpura (PTP)?
  • What key pathology is associated with multiple myeloma?
  • Which of the following organs is responsible for the "pitting process" for RBCs?
  • Which deficiency leads to macrocytic anemia?
  • Which factor deficiency is indicated when APTT corrects after mixing with normal plasma?
  • What type of cells are found in chronic lymphocytic leukemia?
  • What is the effect of adding sodium fluoride to the naphthyl ASD acetate (NASDA) esterase reaction?
  • What results would be expected in a prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) test for a patient with polycythemia?
  • What is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte percentage range in adults?
  • What is the nature of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?
  • Which set of platelet responses would be most likely associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia?
  • Acquired thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterized as what type of disease?
  • Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by which of the following?
  • Which condition is most likely associated with autosplenectomy?
  • Why is a correction necessary for WBC counts when nucleated RBCs are present?
  • Which test would be abnormal in a patient with factor X deficiency?
  • What does reticulocytosis usually indicate?
  • Waldenström's macroglobulinemia primarily affects which type of cell?
  • How does the presence of reticulocytes correlate with red cell production?
  • Which condition leads to abnormal platelet aggregation tests?
  • The lupus anticoagulant affects which of the following tests?
  • What is the characteristic abnormal red blood cell morphology in myelofibrosis?
  • Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterized by which of the following?
  • A 24-year-old man with Down syndrome presents with multiple symptoms and abnormal CBC results. What does this suggest?
  • What is the mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) if Hgb is 15 g/dL and Hct is 47 mL/dL?
  • Which is NOT typically associated with multiple myeloma?
  • What is factor XIII's primary function in the clotting process?
  • Multiple myeloma is most challenging to differentiate from which of the following?
  • What type of drugs are warfarin and heparin classified as?
  • What happens to the PT and APTT when there is excess anticoagulant due to blood volume issues?
  • What is a major criterion for the 2008 WHO diagnostic criteria for essential thrombocythemia?
  • Aspirin resistance may be associated with:
  • What implication does a prolonged APTT have if it normalizes after mixing?
  • Which of the following is NOT a characteristic finding in a patient with iron deficiency anemia?
  • The most common subtype of classic von Willebrand's disease is:
  • What is the typical hematological presentation of β-thalassemia minor?
  • What is the expected laboratory data for a patient suffering from pernicious anemia?
  • Thrombophilia is most closely associated with which condition?
  • What do you call erythrocytes containing iron granules when stained with Prussian blue?
  • What laboratory finding typically differentiates multiple myeloma from Waldenström's macroglobulinemia?
  • Which condition is typically characterized by an increased reticulocyte count?
  • Sickle cell disorders fall under which category regarding red blood cell defects?
  • What staining method is commonly used for staining and counting reticulocytes?
  • What is the osmotic fragility test result in a patient with thalassemia major most likely to be?
  • What is the role of prostacyclin in hemostasis?
  • Which erythrocyte abnormality is characterized by an increased number of target cells?
  • Which clinical effect is specifically associated with TTP that differentiates it from other disorders?
  • Which condition is often associated with a deficiency of vitamin B12?
  • Whose action leads to the increased platelet aggregation seen in acquired TTP?
  • What laboratory feature distinguishes hairy cell leukemia?
  • In a factor VIII activity assay, the patient's plasma should be mixed with what type of plasma?
  • How is the reticulocyte count expressed in anemic patients?
  • Which type of acute myeloid leukemia is known as true monocytic leukemia?
  • Which of the following is NOT associated with intravascular hemolysis?
  • What is the significance of the CALLA marker in leukemia diagnosis?
  • Which of the following is correct regarding the international normalized ratio (INR)?
  • What is the primary hemoglobin type found in patients with thalassemia major?
  • Which condition is most likely to require monitoring while on low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)?
  • Which type of anemia is commonly associated with chronic kidney disease?
  • Which of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in patients taking aspirin?
  • What kind of hematological feature is common in hemolytic uremic syndrome?
  • Which clotting factor is NOT measured by PT and APTT tests?
  • What is the required blast count percentage for diagnosing AML according to the WHO classification?
  • Which factor does NOT influence the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?
  • What is the fundamental reason for using anti-Xa assays during LMWH therapy?
  • Which stain is used to selectively identify phospholipids in myeloid cells?
  • Which deficiency is commonly noted for causing severe bleeding during surgical procedures?
  • What is the treatment of choice for factor VIII deficiency?
  • Plasminogen deficiency is associated with:
  • A protein that plays a role in both coagulation and platelet aggregation is:
  • What is characteristically seen in the peripheral blood of patients with polycythemia vera?
  • Thrombocytopenia may be associated with what condition?
  • What potential complication can occur from hypercoagulability associated with HIT?
  • What condition will shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?
  • What characterizes polycythemia vera (PV)?
  • A 50-year-old man has been on heparin for the past 7 days. Which combination of the tests is expected to be abnormal?
  • In which condition is Hgb A2 typically elevated?
  • What type of antibodies are most commonly involved in post-transfusion purpura?
  • Which is a characteristic feature of Auer rods?
  • An M:E ratio of 10:1 is most commonly associated with which condition?
  • Which of the following is NOT a feature of secondary polycythemia?
  • Which is the first stage of erythrocytic maturation in which the cytoplasm is pink due to the formation of hemoglobin?
  • What test is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy?
  • Which of the following drugs is known to be a risk factor for deep venous thrombosis (DVT)?
  • Which cell type is least likely to be positive for Sudan Black B stain?
  • Congenital dyserythropoietic anemias (CDAs) are primarily characterized by which feature?
  • Which anemia is noted for a lack of intrinsic factor that prevents B12 absorption?
  • Which factor is involved in the monitoring of heparinized patients through anti-Xa assays?
  • Which of the following is NOT associated with sideroblastic anemia?
  • Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?
  • What laboratory test is used to screen for activated protein C resistance?
  • What is a significant feature of neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia?
  • What test is used to monitor heparin therapy?
  • What is the WHO designation for FAB AML M2 according to the French-American-British classification?
  • An increased RDW on an electronic cell counter is correlated with which condition?
  • Which of the following is most commonly associated with activated protein C resistance (APCR)?
  • Which treatment is primarily used for managing symptoms in polycythemia vera?
  • If a patient's bone marrow shows 70% blasts that are negative for Sudan Black B, what is the likely diagnosis?
  • Which clotting factors are measured by the APTT test?
  • Which clotting factor is involved in clot formation in vitro but not in vivo?
  • In which age group would 60% lymphocytes be considered normal?
  • What clinical condition likely caused a prolonged PT that corrected with intravenous vitamin K after 24 hours?
  • What does the Coulter principle for counting cells rely on?
  • Which condition results from the accumulation of leukemic cells in the bone marrow, leading to hematopoietic failure?
  • When thrombin time is prolonged, which condition may be suspected?
  • What is the primary effect of warfarin?
  • What condition would be suspected if a patient has no bleeding complications but shows a prolonged APTT?
  • A falsely elevated Hct will not impact which of the following calculated values?
  • Which laboratory test is affected by heparin therapy?
  • Which test result is typically normal in a patient with classic von Willebrand's disease?
  • What amino acid substitution causes sickle cell anemia?
  • Which physiological condition best describes the pathophysiology of thrombocytopenia?
  • What clinical manifestation is highly indicative of acute monocytic leukemia?
  • What characterizes classic hemophilia A?
  • Which of the following occurs in idiopathic myelofibrosis?
  • What condition is likely indicated by a low platelet count in a newborn with petechiae and purpura?
  • An abnormal APTT caused by a pathological circulating anticoagulant is:
  • Which clotting factors are inhibited by protein S?
  • Which symptom is commonly seen in CML but not in acute myeloid leukemia?
  • Which set of red blood cell indices suggests spherocytosis?
  • What would be the most likely classification by the WHO for FAB AML M7 according to the French-American-British classification?
  • One of the complications associated with severe hemophilia A is:
  • Which cell classification is characterized by a positive stain with acid phosphatase that is not inhibited by tartaric acid?
  • What is the significance of increased 2,3 DPG levels in red blood cells?
  • What is a primary characteristic of acute immune thrombocytopenic purpura?
  • Which test is most diagnostic for confirming iron deficiency anemia?
  • What does lumi-aggregation measure in platelet function tests?
  • Which laboratory finding is indicative of thrombocytopenia in leukemia patients?
  • What is indicated by normal PT, prolonged APTT, increased bleeding time, and normal platelet count?
  • Which phagocytic cells are known to produce lysozymes that exhibit bacteriocidal properties?
  • How does thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) differ from disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
  • Which term describes the variation in red cell size observed on a peripheral smear?
  • What is one consequence of decreased α2-antiplasmin levels in the body?
  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most commonly associated with which type of acute leukemia?
  • In which condition may peripheral blood smear show spherocytes?
  • Which characteristic describes antithrombin (AT)?
  • What is the best method for determining storage iron?
  • Normal platelet adhesion depends upon which component?
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